0% 5 votes, 4.8 avg 5 JMI Class-9 PYQs- 2025 1 / 100 He ____ the Bharat Ratna award. He was the best. A) receive B) receiving C) to receive D) received 2 / 100 I ________ several movies this year. A) see B) am seeing C) have seen D) had seen 3 / 100 He had finished his work before he ________ home. A) had left B) leaves C) left D) was leaving 4 / 100 Do you know where my iPod is? This sentence is a … A) Declarative sentence B) Imperative sentence C) Exclamatory sentence D) Interrogative sentence 5 / 100 “Anna, answer the door.” This sentence is a … A) Declarative sentence B) Interrogative sentence C) Imperative sentence D) Exclamatory sentence 6 / 100 He is a good boy. This type of sentence is called a … A) Imperative sentence B) Exclamatory sentence C) Declarative sentence D) Interrogative sentence 7 / 100 Which type of sentence expresses strong emotions? A) Declarative sentence B) Imperative sentence C) Interrogative sentence D) Exclamatory sentence 8 / 100 Your perfume has a very pleasant ________ . A) sent B) scent C) cent D) saint 9 / 100 We should ________ the plane. A) boarded B) board C) boarding D) had boarded 10 / 100 Aspirin can ________ pain. A) lessen B) lesson C) lease D) lose 11 / 100 He plays in a famous band. The ________ is called “The Beatles”. A) band B) the band C) a band D) an band 12 / 100 King Arthur was ________ just king. A) a B) an C) the D) no article 13 / 100 Choose the correct prefix: ____legal (meaning “not legal”). A) no B) in C) un D) il 14 / 100 There was some ________ over the topic. A) dis-agreement B) mis-agreement C) un-agreement D) non-agreement 15 / 100 Everyone was staring at me and I felt very ________ . A) unconscious B) over-conscious C) self-conscious D) under-conscious 16 / 100 Exercise is good for your health. (Choose correct form with suffix, if needed.) A) healthful B) healthy C) healthness D) no change 17 / 100 I was shocked at her ________ . A) rude B) rudely C) rudeness D) ruder 18 / 100 She ________ the office by 9 a.m. daily. A) reach B) reaches C) reaching D) reached 19 / 100 He is one of the ________ players in the team. A) good B) better C) best D) most good 20 / 100 The minimum age to fill this form is 20 ________ . A) year B) years C) year’s D) years’ 21 / 100 Choose the correct homophone of “night”. A) knight B) nite C) light D) site 22 / 100 This house was built by my grandfather. This sentence is in… A) Active voice B) Passive voice C) Direct speech D) Indirect speech 23 / 100 What is the term for the form of verb that shows the subject performing the action? A) Passive voice B) Active voice C) Gerund D) Infinitive 24 / 100 Change from indirect to direct: The teacher asked if you had completed your homework. A) The teacher asked, “Did you complete your homework?” B) The teacher said, “You completed your homework.” C) The teacher said, “Did he complete his homework?” D) The teacher asked, “Have you completed your homework?” 25 / 100 Identify the correct indirect form (narration): The captain said, “We will win the match.” A) The captain said that they will win the match. B) The captain said that they would win the match. C) The captain told that they would win the match. D) The captain said that we would win the match. 26 / 100 Transplantation of seedling is done in A) coffee B) rice C) cocoa D) mango 27 / 100 Which tool is used to remove weeds? A) sickle B) hoe C) plough D) seed drill 28 / 100 Main constituent of LPG is? A) methane B) ethane C) butane D) pentane 29 / 100 The loudness of sound depends on its A) amplitude B) frequency C) time period D) speed 30 / 100 Ultrasound has frequency of vibration A) between 20 and 20000 Hz B) above 20000 Hz C) below 20 Hz D) between 500 and 10000 Hz 31 / 100 The gas released during the preparation of bread is A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) carbon dioxide D) sulphur dioxide 32 / 100 In humans, the development of fertilised egg takes place in the A) ovary B) testis C) oviduct D) uterus 33 / 100 Which of the following is an example of a viviparous animal? A) cat B) fish C) cobra D) hen 34 / 100 A disease in human beings caused by virus A) typhoid B) influenza C) dysentery D) cholera 35 / 100 AIDS can spread from an infected person to another person through A) sharing food B) blood transfusion C) sharing comb D) a mosquito bite 36 / 100 Separation of grains and chaff is done by A) winnowing B) threshing C) fallow D) harvesting 37 / 100 If we apply oil on door hinges, the friction will A) increase B) decrease C) disappears altogether D) will remain unchanged 38 / 100 Which substance is formed by the carbonisation of dead vegetation? A) coal B) coke C) coal gas D) coal tar 39 / 100 The substance that does not burn with flame A) LPG B) camphor C) dry grass D) charcoal 40 / 100 Pitch of sound is determined by its A) frequency B) amplitude C) speed D) loudness 41 / 100 Reproduction by budding takes place in A) hydra B) amoeba C) paramecium D) bacteria 42 / 100 In human beings after fertilisation the structure which gets embedded in walls of uterus is A) ovum B) embryo C) foetus D) zygote 43 / 100 For the metamorphosis of tadpoles which of the following elements must be available in water? A) chlorine B) carbon C) sulphur D) iodine 44 / 100 An object is vibrating at 50 Hz. What is its time period? A) 0.02 s B) 2 s C) 0.2 s D) 20.0 s 45 / 100 Which one of the following solutions will not conduct electricity? A) lemon juice B) vinegar C) tap water D) vegetable oil 46 / 100 Yeast is used in the production of A) sugar B) alcohol C) hydrochloric acid D) oxygen 47 / 100 The number of nuclei present in a zygote is A) none B) one C) two D) four 48 / 100 An electroscope is a device which is used to find if an object is A) charged B) magnetic C) free of cracks D) hot 49 / 100 Part of the eye which controls the light entering is called A) iris B) cornea C) lens D) retina 50 / 100 Which one of the following has the highest calorific value? A) kerosene B) biogas C) LPG D) petrol 51 / 100 Which event marked the beginning of British rule in India? A) Battle of Panipat B) Battle of Plassey C) Revolt of 1857 D) Quit India Movement 52 / 100 Who was the first Governor-General of India? A) Lord Dalhousie B) Lord Curzon C) Warren Hastings D) Lord Mountbatten 53 / 100 The revolt of 1857 started from which city? A) Delhi B) Meerut C) Kanpur D) Lucknow 54 / 100 Which act transferred power from the East India Company to the British Crown? A) Regulating Act, 1773 B) Charter Act, 1813 C) Government of India Act, 1858 D) Indian Councils Act, 1861 55 / 100 Who founded the Arya Samaj? A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy B) Dayanand Saraswati C) Swami Vivekananda D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 56 / 100 Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of the Partition of Bengal? A) Lord Lytton B) Lord Curzon C) Lord Canning D) Lord Ripon 57 / 100 Which movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942? A) Civil Disobedience Movement B) Quit India Movement C) Non-Cooperation Movement D) Swadeshi Movement 58 / 100 Who was the first President of the Indian National Congress (INC)? A) Mahatma Gandhi B) A.O. Hume C) W.C. Banerjee D) Dadabhai Naoroji 59 / 100 Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource? A) Coal B) Petroleum C) Solar Energy D) Natural Gas 60 / 100 Which type of farming involves growing crops for commercial purposes? A) Subsistence farming B) Commercial farming C) Organic farming D) Plantation farming 61 / 100 Which of the following is NOT a factor of soil formation? A) Time B) Soil texture C) Organic matter D) Climate 62 / 100 Which is the largest producer of rice in the world? A) India B) China C) Indonesia D) USA 63 / 100 Which of the following is the most populated continent? A) Africa B) Europe C) Asia D) North America 64 / 100 Which of the following is an example of a human-made resource? A) Minerals B) Forests C) Buildings D) Water 65 / 100 Which of the following industries is classified based on raw materials? A) Public sector industry B) Joint sector industry C) Agro-based industry D) Small scale industry 66 / 100 Who is known as the “Father of the Indian Constitution”? A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Mahatma Gandhi C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar D) Sardar Patel 67 / 100 Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights? A) Part II B) Part III C) Part IV D) Part V 68 / 100 Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability? A) Article 14 B) Article 16 C) Article 17 D) Article 19 69 / 100 Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India? A) Prime Minister B) President C) Lok Sabha D) Supreme Court 70 / 100 The minimum age required to contest for the Lok Sabha elections is A) 18 years B) 21 years C) 25 years D) 30 years 71 / 100 Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right? A) Right to Equality B) Right to Property C) Right to Freedom D) Right to Education 72 / 100 What does the term ‘Adivasi’ literally mean? A) Forest Dwellers B) Indigenous People C) Original Inhabitants D) Tribal Groups 73 / 100 Which Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth? A) Right to Freedom B) Right to Equality C) Right Against Exploitation D) Right to Education 74 / 100 Why is it important to separate religion from the State in democratic societies? A) To ensure the dominance of the majority religion B) To protect the freedom of individuals to exit from their religion, embrace another religion, or have the freedom to interpret religious teachings differently C) To promote religious practices in government institutions D) To establish a theocratic state 75 / 100 Which of the following statements is true regarding the laws enacted by the Parliament of India? A) The Parliament cannot change existing laws B) The Parliament has the authority to make new laws and modify existing ones C) Once a law is enacted, it cannot be challenged D) Laws made by the Parliament do not apply to the judiciary 76 / 100 The value of \(\left[ 2−3\left( 2−3 \right)^{ −1} \right]^{ −1}\) A) 5 B) −5 C) 1/5 D) − 1/5 77 / 100 If \(\frac{\sqrt{49}}{64}=\frac{x}{512}\) then the value of x is A) 64 B) 56 C) 49 D) 36 78 / 100 If \(x−\frac{1}{x}=\sqrt{8}\) then the value of \(x^{ 2}+\frac{1}{x^{2}}\) is A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 79 / 100 If \(2(x−3)+\frac{1}{3}(2x−5)=3\), then the value of x is A) x = 2 B) x = 3 C) x = 4 D) x = 5 80 / 100 36 men can complete a specific amount of work in 18 days. In how many days will 27 men be able to complete the same amount of work? A) 12 days B) 18 days C) 22 days D) 24 days 81 / 100 Factor of (l + m)² − 4lm is A) (l + m)(l + m) B) (l − m)(l − m) C) (l + m)(l − m) D) None of the above 82 / 100 The measures of two quadrilaterals are 115° and 45°. If other two angles are equal then the measures of the equal angles are A) 105° B) 160° C) 100° D) 120° 83 / 100 If the measure of each exterior angle of a regular polygon is 40° then find the number of sides. A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12 84 / 100 If 40% of x is 256 then 25% of x will be A) 180 B) 160 C) 140 D) 120 85 / 100 If the circumference of two circles are in the ratio of 2 : 3 then the ratio of their areas will be A) 4 : 9 B) 2 : 3 C) 3 : 4 D) 3 : 2 86 / 100 If out of 32 students, 8 are absent, then what percent of the students are present? A) 75% B) 64% C) 60% D) 70% 87 / 100 Coprime numbers are numbers whose common factor is A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) their product 88 / 100 If the length of each side of an equilateral triangle is x, then the perimeter of the equilateral triangle is A) 3 + x B) 3 – x C) x/3 D) 3x 89 / 100 What will be the side of the cube whose surface area is 600 cm²? A) 10 cm B) 20 cm C) 30 cm D) 60 cm 90 / 100 Two rational numbers \(\frac{a}{b}\) and \(\frac{c}{d}\) are equal only if A) a = c B) a × b = c × d C) a × d = b × c D) b = d 91 / 100 Find the sum of ordinates when the points given are (−4,3) and (−3,4) A) 7 B) −7 C) 1 D) −1 92 / 100 The value of a² + 4a + 4 at a = −2 A) −1 B) 1 C) 0 D) 2 93 / 100 HCF of 5m³n² and 10m⁴n³ is A) 5m²n² B) 5m³n² C) 5m³n³ D) 5mn 94 / 100 If x : y = 2 : 3 and 2 : x = 1 : 2, then the value of y is A) 3 B) 6 C) 8 D) 12 95 / 100 A rational number can be expressed as a terminating decimal if its denominator has factors A) 2 or 3 B) 2 or 5 C) 3 or 5 D) 3 or 3 or 5 96 / 100 Find the height of a cuboid whose volume is 275 cm³ and base area is 25 cm² A) 5 cm B) 7 cm C) 9 cm D) 11 cm 97 / 100 If two identical solid cubes of side ‘a’ are joined end to end, then the total surface area of the resulting cuboid is A) 10a² B) 12a² C) 16a² D) 18a² 98 / 100 If two-third of the number is 20 less than the original number, then find the number A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80 99 / 100 If x – y = 8 and xy = 12, then the value of x² + y² is A) 40 B) 88 C) 8 D) 80 100 / 100 If the cost of a pair of shoes at a shop was ₹450 and the sales tax charged was 10%, then the bill amount will be A) ₹452 B) ₹475 C) ₹495 D) ₹485 Your score isThe average score is 39% 0% Restart quiz Please Rate The Test Send feedback Share is Caring: Share on WhatsApp (Opens in new window) WhatsApp Share on Facebook (Opens in new window) Facebook Share on Telegram (Opens in new window) Telegram Share on X (Opens in new window) X Share on LinkedIn (Opens in new window) LinkedIn Share on Reddit (Opens in new window) Reddit Related
