0% 1 votes, 5 avg 1 AMU Diploma in Engineering PYQs- 2022 1 / 100 The displacement-time graph for two particles A and B are, straight lines inclined at 30° with time axis and at 30° to displacement axis, respectively. The ratio of velocities of the two particles is: A) 1 B) 1/3 C) 2/3 D) 1/4 2 / 100 A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. The displacement after quarter a circle would be: A) zero B) r√2 C) πr D) 2r 3 / 100 Two balls of mass 50 g and 20 g travelling towards each other with speeds 8 m/s and 5 m/s respectively, collides and starts moving opposite to each other with the common speed. The distance between the balls after 3 seconds will be: A) 0 m B) 60 m C) 30 m D) 40 m 4 / 100 An object of mass 100 kg is accelerated uniformly from a velocity of 5 m/s to 8 m/s in 6 seconds. The magnitude of the force exerted on the object is: A) 500 N B) 800 N C) 100 N D) 50 N 5 / 100 A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height 5R above the surface of earth, where ‘R’ is radius of earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of 2R from the surface of earth will be ____________. A) 6 h B) 2\(\sqrt{6}\)h C) 6\(\sqrt{2}\)h D) 2 h 6 / 100 Average density of the earth in terms of g, G and R is given by: Where: g = Acceleration due to gravity G = Gravitational constant R = Earth’s radius (a) \(\frac{3G}{4πgR}\) (b) \(\frac{3g}{4πGR}\) (c) \(\frac{3RG}{4πg}\) (d) \(\frac{3gR}{4πG}\) A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) 7 / 100 The difference in final and initial kinetic energies for a particle of mass 20 g in travelling a distance of 120 m with a constant acceleration of 4.1 m/s² is: A) 4.92 J B) 0 J C) 19.62 J D) 9.84 J 8 / 100 A body weighs 32 N in water and its relative density is 3.5 . The weight of the body in air is: A) 44.8 N B) 116 N C) 224 N D) 12.8 N 9 / 100 The sound waves produced by a sitar are: A) transverse B) longitudinal C) both transverse and longitudinal D) ultrasonic in nature 10 / 100 A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R′, then the ratio is \(\frac{R}{R′}\) is A) 1/25 B) 1/5 C) 5 D) 25 11 / 100 If an electric iron of 1000 W is used for 30 minutes every day, electric energy consumed in the month of April would be: A) 12 kWh B) 15 kWh C) 18 kWh D) 16 kWh 12 / 100 The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current: A) is zero B) decreases as we move towards its end C) is the same at all points D) increases as we move towards its end 13 / 100 An induced emf is produced when a magnet is plunged into a coil. The magnitude of induced emf does not depend on: A) the number of turns in the coil B) the speed with which the magnet is moved C) the strength of the magnet D) the resistivity of the material of the coil 14 / 100 The twinkling of stars is due to: A) The change in intensity of light coming from the stars B) Atmospheric refraction of star’s light C) Gradual change in optical density of air at every moment D) AII of the above 15 / 100 A concave lens of focal length 25 cm and a convex lens of focal length 20 cm are placed in contact with each other. The power of the combination is: A) −4 dioptre B) 4 dioptre C) 1 dioptre D) −1 dioptre 16 / 100 A person cannot see distinctly any object placed beyond 50 cm from his eye. The power of the lens which will enable him to see distant star is: A) −2.5 D B) −0.5 D C) −2.0 D D) −1.5 D 17 / 100 Wind power of a wind mill is: A) directly proportional to the radius of the blades B) directly proportional to the wind speed C) directly proportional to the cube of the wind speed D) directly proportional to the square of the wind speed 18 / 100 Using following reaction arrange the elements A, B, C and D in order of their redox activity: A + B⁺ → A⁺ + B; C⁺ + D → No reaction B + D⁺ → B⁺ + D; B + C⁺ → B⁺ + C; A) A>B>C>D B) D>C>B>A C) D>C>A>B D) A>B >D>C 19 / 100 Sodium metal is highly reactive to the moisture (water): A) Sodium forms covalent bond with water B) Sodium gains one electron to get a stable octate i.e. Neon gas like configuration C) Sodium loses one electron to get a stable octate i.e. Neon gas like configuration D) Sodium is highly soluble in water 20 / 100 How many nodes are present in 2s orbita: A) 1 B) zero C) 2 D) 3 21 / 100 When the ferrous sulphate is heated, the green colour of the crystal is changed due to: A) formation of SO₃ gas B) formation of SO₂ gas C) formation of Fe₂O₃ D) ferrous sulphate crystals lose water 22 / 100 Which of the following is true for fullerenes? A) Carbon atoms arranged in the shape of a diamond-like structure B) Carbon atoms arranged in the shape of a graphite-like structure C) Carbon atoms arranged in the shape of a Soccer ball D) Sulphur atoms arranged in the shape of a Soccer ball 23 / 100 Oxidation number of the underlined element in the following compounds are respectively A) +2, +3, +2 and +6 B) −2, +3, +1 and +4 C) +2, −3, +2 and +2 D) +2, +3, +2 and +4 24 / 100 IUPAC name of the following molecule is: A) Pentanol B) PentanaI C) Pentanone D) Butaldehyde 25 / 100 Tomato is a natural source of: A) Acetic acid B) Citric acid C) Oxalic acid D) Tartaric acid 26 / 100 What is ‘X’ in below reaction: A) CH₃CHO B) CH₂=CH₂ C) CH₃COCH₃ D) CH₃COOH 27 / 100 Which class of compounds are used in making perfumes and as flavouring agents? A) Alcohols B) Aldehydes C) Carboxylic acids D) Esters 28 / 100 The following reaction is an example of A) Addition reaction B) Substitution reaction C) Oxidations D) Reduction 29 / 100 Treatment of cancer is done using: A) Isotope of Uranium B) Isotope of Cobalt C) Isotope of Iodine D) Isotope of Hydrogen 30 / 100 Soda acid fire extinguishers use: A) Na₂CO₃ B) NaHCO₃ C) MgCO₃ D) NaHCO₃ + Na₂CO₃ 31 / 100 pH of Ammonium Chloride (NH₄CI) solution in water will be: A) Zero B) 7 C) More than 7 D) Less than 7 32 / 100 Formula of Magnesium Nitride is: A) MgN₂ B) Mg₃N₂ C) Mg₂N₃ D) MgN 33 / 100 Burning of candle involves: A) Physical change B) Chemical change C) Both Physical and Chemical change D) Only Chemical change 34 / 100 Group of elements showing both metallic and non-metallic properties: A) Boron, Silicon, Germanium B) Boron, Sulphur, Germanium C) Sulphur, Phosphorous, Coke D) Coke, Zinc, Sulphur 35 / 100 Large-scale deforestation decreases: A) Soil erosion B) Rainfall C) Drought D) Global warming 36 / 100 Sardar Sarovar Dam was built on the river Narmada in the year: A) 1950 B) 1940 C) 1960 D) 1930 37 / 100 The vegetative propagation where a branch is defoliated and pegged down in the ground is called: A) Cutting B) Layering C) Grafting D) None of the above 38 / 100 Bryophyllum is propagated vegetatively by means of: A) Bulbils B) Leaf buds C) Grafting D) Layering 39 / 100 Palaeontology is the study of: A) Soil B) Fossils C) Cell D) Pollen Grains 40 / 100 Out of the total water on the Earth, fresh water reserves constitutes approximates: A) 70% B) 2.7% C) 10% D) 8.9% 41 / 100 Which of the following relates to multipurpose protected areas meant for conservation of wildlife? A) National parks B) Biosphere reserves C) Wildlife sanctuaries D) Rivers 42 / 100 World Water Day is celebrated on: A) May 22 B) June 05 C) March 22 D) April 11 43 / 100 The term Protoplasm was coined by: A) Robert Brown B) Robert Hooke C) Leeuwenhoek D) Purkinje 44 / 100 Lenticels are present on: A) leaves B) stems of soft herbaceous plants C) stems of hard and woody plants D) root hairs 45 / 100 The whole process of anaerobic respiration takes place in: A) chloroplast B) mitochondrion C) ribosome D) cytoplasm 46 / 100 Which plant hormone promotes dormancy in seeds and buds? A) Auxin B) Gibberellin C) Cytokinin D) Abscisic acid 47 / 100 Female gametophyte is also known as: A) Embryo sac B) Megaspore C) Megaspore mother cell D) Megasporangium 48 / 100 Anemophilous flowers are: A) Wind pollinated B) Water pollinated C) Animal pollinated D) Insects pollinated 49 / 100 The structural unit employed for vegetative propagation is called: A) Propagule B) Explant C) Seed D) None of the above 50 / 100 Which state has lndira Gandhi Canal for irrigation? A) Rajasthan B) Odisha C) West Bengal D) Karnataka 51 / 100 Sania wants to express 1000 in the form of a sum of positive integers involving only 8s. How many minimum 8s she requires to do so? A) 4 B) 8 C) 3 D) 125 52 / 100 The largest positive integer which divides 434 and 539 leaving remainders 9 and 12 respectively is: A) 9 B) 108 C) 17 D) 539 53 / 100 If (−1)ⁿ + (-1)⁸ⁿ = 0, then n is: A) a positive integer B) any even numeral C) any odd natural number D) any negative integer 54 / 100 Divya’s swimming speed in still water to the speed of the river is 7 : 1. She swims 4.2 km up the river in just 14 min. Time taken by Divya to swim 18.4 km down the river will be: A) 11 min B) 12 min C) 23 min D) 46 min 55 / 100 The value of k so that the following pair of equations have no solution: (3k + 1) x + 3y − 2 = 0 (k² + 1) x + (k − 2) y − 5 = 0 A) −4 B) −2 C) −3 D) −1 56 / 100 If the polynomial f(x) = x⁴ − 6x³ + 16x² − 25x + 10 is divided by another polynomial x² − 2x + k and the remainder comes out to be x + a then the value of k and a are respectively: A) 2, 3 B) 3, 5 C) 5, 5 D) 5, −5 57 / 100 If α, β are roots of the equation x² − lx + m = 0, then the value of \(\frac{1}{α²}+\frac{1}{β²}\) in terms of l and m is: (a) \(\frac{l²−2m}{m²}\) (b) \(\frac{2l²−m}{m²}\) (c) \(\frac{2m+l²}{m²}\) (d) \(\frac{2l²+m}{m²}\) A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) 58 / 100 If α, β are the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial f(x) = ax² + bx + c, then \(\frac{α²}{β}+\frac{β²}{α}=\)? (a) \(\frac{3abc}{a+b}\) (b) \(\frac{3abc−a³}{bc}\) (c) \(\frac{3abc−b³}{a²c}\) (d) \(\frac{3abc−c³}{abc}\) A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) 59 / 100 The roots of the quadratic equation \(\frac{1}{a+b+x}=\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{x};\space a+b\space ≠\space 0\) are: A) −a, −b B) a, −b C) −a, b D) a, b 60 / 100 If the squared difference of the of zeroes of the quadratic polynomial f(x) = x²+px+45 is equal to 144, the value of p is: A) ±22 B) ±30 C) ±45 D) ±18 61 / 100 An A.P. consists of 37 terms. The sum of the three middle terms is 225 and the sum of the last three terms is 429. Then A.P. is: A) 3, 8, 13, 18, ….. B) 2, 6, 10, 14, ….. C) 3, 7, 11, 15, ….. D) 2, 7, 12, 17, ….. 62 / 100 If the points (2, 1) and (1, −2) are equidistant from the point (x, y), then: A) x − 3y = 0 B) x + 3y = 0 C) 3x − y = 0 D) 3x + y = 0 63 / 100 If the points P(6, 1), Q(8, 2), R(9, 4) and S(x, 3) are the vertices of a parallelogram, taken in order, then the value of x is: A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4 64 / 100 A point P(x, y) is such that PA = PB, where A (a+b, b−a) and B(a−b, a+b), then: A) ax = by B) bx = ay C) x = a²y D) None of these 65 / 100 ln ∆ABC, right−angled at C, if cotA= \(\sqrt{3}\), the value of sinA CosB + cosA sinB will be: A) 0 B) 1 C) 1/√2 D) 1/2 66 / 100 ln triangle ABC, if D is a point on the side BC such that ∠ADC = ∠BAC, then CB.CD is equal to: A) AB² B) BC² C) CA² D) AD² 67 / 100 The circumcentre of the triangle ABC is O. Then ∠OBC + ∠BAC is A) greater than 90° B) equal to 90° C) less than 90° D) greater than 180° 68 / 100 Area of a rectangle gets reduced by 14 square units, if its length is reduced by 4 units and breadth is increased by 2 units. If we increase the length by 6 units and the breadth by 1 unit, the area increases by 91 square units. The area of the rectangle is: A) 230 square units B) 196 square units C) 209 square units D) 213 square units 69 / 100 ABCD is a parallelogram. Points P and Q on BC trisects BC in three equal parts. Then area of △APQ is: (a) \(\frac{1}{4}\) area (ABCD) (b) \(\frac{1}{5}\) area (ABCD) (c) \(\frac{1}{6}\) area (ABCD) (d) \(\frac{1}{3}\) area (ABCD) A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) 70 / 100 ln the given figure, two circular flower beds have been shown on two sides of a square lawn ABCD of side 56 m. If the centre of each circular flower bed is the point of intersection O of the diagonals of the square lawn, find the sum of the areas of the lawn and the flower beds: A) 4302 m² B) 3402 m² C) 1032 m² D) 4032 m² 71 / 100 The surface areas of six faces of a rectangular solid are 4, 4, 8, 8, 18 and 18 cm². The volume of the solid is: A) 324 cm³ B) 60 cm³ C) 48 cm³ D) 24 cm³ 72 / 100 A right cylindrical vessel is full with water. How many right cones having same diameter and height as of right cylinder will be needed to store that water? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 73 / 100 If Cos 9α = sin α and 9α < 90°, then tan 5α = ? (a) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) (b) \(\sqrt{3}\) (c) 1 (d) 0 A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) 74 / 100 If 𝑥 𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝜃 – 𝑦 𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝜃 = \(\sqrt{x²+y²}\) and \(\frac{1}{a²}\) 𝐶𝑜𝑠² 𝜃 + \(\frac{1}{b²}\) 𝑆𝑖𝑛² 𝜃 = \(\frac{1}{x²+y²}\) then which relationship among the following is correct? (a) \(\frac{x²}{b²}−\frac{y²}{a²}\space=\space1\) (b) \(\frac{x²}{a²}+\frac{y²}{b²}\space=\space1\) (c) \(\frac{x²}{b²}+\frac{y²}{a²}\space=\space1\) (d) \(\frac{x²}{a²}−\frac{y²}{b²}\space=\space1\) A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) 75 / 100 Due to sun, a 6 feet man casts a shadow of 4,feet, whereas a pole next to the man casts a shadow of 36 feet. What is the height of the pole? A) 54 feet B) 48 feet C) 72 feet D) 63 feet 76 / 100 A 1.5 m tall boy is standing at some distance from a 30 m tall building. The angle of elevation from his eyes to the top of the building increases from 30° to 60° as he walks towards the building. Then the distance he walked towards the building is: A) \(19\sqrt{3}\space m\) B) \(20\sqrt{3}\space m\) C) \(21\sqrt{3}\space m\) D) \(22\sqrt{3}\space m\) 77 / 100 The mean of a set of observations x₁, x₂, x₃, ……, xₙ is 𝑥̅. If each observation is divided by ‘α‘ and then increased by ‘𝑎’, then the new mean is: (a) \(\frac{\bar{x}}{α}−a\) (b) \(\bar{x}+\frac{a}{α}\) (c) \(\frac{\bar{x}}{α}+a\) (d) \(α\bar{x} − a\) A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) 78 / 100 The median of set of 9 distinct observations is 20.5. If each of the largest 4 observations of the set is increased by 2, then the median of the new set: A) is increased by 2 B) is decreased by 2 C) is two times of the original number D) remains the same as that of the original set 79 / 100 If an unbiased die is thrown twice, then the probability of 3 will not come up either time is: A) 2/3 B) 5/6 C) 25/36 D) 35/36 80 / 100 If sinθ + cosθ = a and sin³θ + cos³θ = b, then the value of 3a – 2b is: A) a³ B) b³ C) 0 D) 1 81 / 100 The autobiography of Subhash Chandra Bose is: A) The Indian Struggle B) Towards Freedom C) My Country My Life D) One Life is Not Enough 82 / 100 An island of the Andaman Islands, now named Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island, was formerly known as: A) Neil Island B) Havelock Island C) Ross Island D) St. Lawrence Island 83 / 100 Larry Tesler, who died in February 2020 was the inventor of computer command: A) Cut/Copy and Paste B) Super Fix and Subscript C) Capitalisation in Lower and Upper Case D) Bold, ltalics and Underline 84 / 100 Who is the author of Ramacharitamanasa? A) Swami Vivekananda B) Kabir Das C) Tulsidas D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 85 / 100 Which British Governor General abolished Sati pratha? A) Lord Cornwallis B) Lord Wellesley C) Lord William Bentinck D) Lord Dalhousie 86 / 100 ‘Nagarhole National Park’ is located in: A) Madhya Pradesh B) Karnataka C) Odisha D) Rajasthan 87 / 100 The Mughal emperor, Humayun died due to: A) assassination by his son B) an accidental fall from the stairs C) snake bite D) arrow shot in the battle field 88 / 100 ‘Kuchipudi’ dance originated in: A) Rajasthan B) Andhra Pradesh C) Karnataka D) Punjab 89 / 100 The I.M.F. and World Bank are also known as: A) Bretton Woods institutions B) New York institutions C) Washington D.C. institutions D) Beverley Hills institutions 90 / 100 ‘Charminar Trophy’ is associated with: A) Volleyball B) Football C) Golf D) Athletics 91 / 100 The angel entrusted with the task of blowing the trumpet (sur) on the day of judgement is: A) Hazrat Jibraeel B) Hazrat lsrafeel C) Hazrat lzraeel D) Hazrat Mikail 92 / 100 After Hijrah of Madina in whose house did the Prophet reside first in Madina? A) Hazrat Ma’az bin Jabal B) Hazrat Abdullah C) Hazrat Abu Ayyub Ansari D) Hazrat Umar 93 / 100 Which of the following books is not part of the ‘Sihah-i-Sittah’? A) Sahih Muslim B) Jamie Tirmidhi C) Sunan Nasa’i D) Musnad Ahmad lbn Hanbal 94 / 100 Hyder Ali took the control of Mysore in the year: A) 1754 B) 1763 C) 1771 D) 1779 95 / 100 The task of placing diacritical marks on the Quran was undertaken by: A) Hazrat Abu Bakr B) Zayd B. Thabit C) Hazrat Ali D) Hajjaj lbn Yusuf Thaqafi 96 / 100 The last Quranic verse was revealed to the Prophet in: A) Muzdalfa B) Mount Safa C) Marwah D) Arafat 97 / 100 Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti was born in the year: A) 1143 AD B) 1173 AD C) 1236 AD D) 1266 AD 98 / 100 Tipu Sultan was born in the year: A) 1750 B) 1755 C) 1763 D) 1765 99 / 100 The famous Qutub Minar is said to be built by Qutubuddin Aibak but the last two storeys were completed by: A) lltutmish B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq C) Sher Shah Suri D) Sikandar Lodi 100 / 100 Tafsir’ ‘al-Quran is a commentary of the Quran written by: A) Ashraf Ali Thanvi B) Maulana Shibli C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad D) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan Your score isThe average score is 32% 0% Restart quiz Please Rate The Test Send feedback Share is Caring: Share on WhatsApp (Opens in new window) WhatsApp Share on Facebook (Opens in new window) Facebook Share on Telegram (Opens in new window) Telegram Share on X (Opens in new window) X Share on LinkedIn (Opens in new window) LinkedIn Share on Reddit (Opens in new window) Reddit Related